Ask The Ump?

[thePITman]

Makes perfect sense and is a good question. This is catcher's obstruction.

In normal circumstances (bat hits mitt, then ball), catcher's obstruction is a delayed dead ball and the coach of the offense would have the option to take the penalty (see below) assessed or the result of the play.

In this situation since the catcher prevented the batter from hitting the pitch, the ball is dead immediately. All runners that were advancing (stealing) on the pitch are awarded one base and the batter runner is awarded first base. Any runner not advancing on the pitch returns the base occupied at the time of the pitch unless forced to advance by a following runner.

Maybe this is a dumb question, but is there a designated area inside which the catcher must catch the pitch? The above scenario made me think about on a suicide squeeze, if the catcher is allowed to stand out in front of the plate and catch the pitch, as long as he avoids making contact with the batter or his bat.

 

[AllSports12]

Maybe this is a dumb question, but is there a designated area inside which the catcher must catch the pitch? The above scenario made me think about on a suicide squeeze, if the catcher is aloud to stand out in front of the plate and catch the pitch, as long as he avoids making contact with the batter or his bat.

Far from a dumb question.....

The catcher may not catch the pitch until after it passes home plate.

What you describe is blatant catcher's obstruction.

 

[umpire16]

A

Far from a dumb question.....

The catcher may not catch the pitch until after it passes home plate.

What you describe is blatant catcher's obstruction.

Another way to think of this is the catcher being in front of the plate pretty much eliminates a swing without someone being seriously hurt.

 

[UMU92]

Catcher is getting ready to receive the ball at the plate. Good throw comes in about 1 ft. off the ground when it gets to the catcher and the catcher goes down on his knees to catch it and he appears to block the plate before actually catching it. It's split seconds type play. Is this obstruction?

 

[AllSports12]

Catcher is getting ready to receive the ball at the plate. Good throw comes in about 1 ft. off the ground when it gets to the catcher and the catcher goes down on his knees to catch it and he appears to block the plate before actually catching it. It's split seconds type play. Is this obstruction?

Based solely on the description, obstruction has occurred.

By rule a defensive player not in possession of the ball must not deny a runner access to the base they are attempting to achieve.

In your situation F2 does not have possession of the ball. (The fact that the throw took F2 into the base path is irrelevant) The umpire must now judge whether or not the runner had access to the plate…… (keep in mind, that access is not limited to the access that is most desirable to the runner)

 

[PW4Ever]

This play occurs at first base where it is a "double base". One base is in fair play, the other in foul territory.

1st and 2nd, 2 outs. A slow dribbler clearly in foul ground hits the bag that's in foul ground. The base umpire throws his hands up calling foul ball. During the action the homeplate umpire overrules him, allowing a run to score. Three questions:

1.) This is a foul ball correct?
2.) A homeplate umpire can't overrule while the action is being played correct? That's something determined after the play?
2.) Regardless of what the answer to the above question(s) are, as soon as the base umpire signals and yells foul ball, the play is dead right? Which would you tell the runner to either advance to third (If it's deemed a fair ball) or to go back to second (If it's deemed a foul ball)? There should've been no run correct?

 

[CedarBuck92]

Based solely on the description, obstruction has occurred.

By rule a defensive player not in possession of the ball must not deny a runner access to the base they are attempting to achieve.

In your situation F2 does not have possession of the ball. (The fact that the throw took F2 into the base path is irrelevant) The umpire must now judge whether or not the runner had access to the plate…… (keep in mind, that access is not limited to the access that is most desirable to the runner)

In this instance who close does the runner need to be to actually rule obstruction? Or is the fact the running is coming home make it obstruction regardless of how close he is?

 

[bucksman]

This play occurs at first base where it is a "double base". One base is in fair play, the other in foul territory.

1st and 2nd, 2 outs. A slow dribbler clearly in foul ground hits the bag that's in foul ground. The base umpire throws his hands up calling foul ball. During the action the homeplate umpire overrules him, allowing a run to score. Three questions:

1.) This is a foul ball correct?
2.) A homeplate umpire can't overrule while the action is being played correct? That's something determined after the play?
2.) Regardless of what the answer to the above question(s) are, as soon as the base umpire signals and yells foul ball, the play is dead right? Which would you tell the runner to either advance to third (If it's deemed a fair ball) or to go back to second (If it's deemed a foul ball)? There should've been no run correct?

For purposes of high school baseball in Ohio, a double first base is not used.
Should a local league/facility chooses to use a double first base, if a batted ball hits the base in foul territory, it is a foul ball.
From a mechanics standpoint, once the ball goes past first base, it is the base umpire's call assuming they are in the "A" position. This was a point noted in one of the DOD's e-mails to umpires during this season.
Once an umpire yells foul ball, and the ball is not caught (which is obvious based on the description here) the play is dead and it's a foul ball.

 

[AllSports12]

In this instance who close does the runner need to be to actually rule obstruction? Or is the fact the running is coming home make it obstruction regardless of how close he is?

There is no presicribed distance.

The situation that was presented above noted that it was a "split second type play". On plays that occur with the runnre further from the plate, we have to apply the first part of the rule and determine whether or not that defensive player's position hindered the runner or changed the pattern of the play.

 

[AllSports12]

This play occurs at first base where it is a "double base". One base is in fair play, the other in foul territory.

1st and 2nd, 2 outs. A slow dribbler clearly in foul ground hits the bag that's in foul ground. The base umpire throws his hands up calling foul ball. During the action the homeplate umpire overrules him, allowing a run to score. Three questions:

1.) This is a foul ball correct?
2.) A homeplate umpire can't overrule while the action is being played correct? That's something determined after the play?
2.) Regardless of what the answer to the above question(s) are, as soon as the base umpire signals and yells foul ball, the play is dead right? Which would you tell the runner to either advance to third (If it's deemed a fair ball) or to go back to second (If it's deemed a foul ball)? There should've been no run correct?

It should also be noted as an addendum to proper ruling @bucksman provided, there is nothing in the rule that allows this play to be "overruled" or even discussed so that the call could possibly be changed.

It's very simple, once a grounded ball is declared foul in the field of play...... It's foul, even if it was fair by 10 feet. (I've seen that")

It's frustrating to hear that the home plate umpire would would mess this up on so many levels.